"Jewish Christians Kept The Law Of Moses"
Though I do not agree with Bro. Manchester's conclusions of the above, I want to commend him on the spirit in which he wrote it. He pointed out in the outset of his article that if anyone found error in his article that it might be pointed out in the Gospel Guardian. This I shall endeavor to do.
That many Jewish Christians clung to Judaism by one hand and tried to cling to Christianity with the other I do not deny, but I maintain they violated the scriptures in doing so.
Bro. Manchester concludes that James, Paul and others recorded in Acts 21, "Were not guilty of one bit of wrongdoing nor one vestige of compromise in what they did" and that "Paul had not taught the Jews which were among the Gentiles to forsake Moses."
He bases his argument on the fact that the many, many passages of scriptures in the book of Romans condemning this very thing had not been written yet. Thus, "there was not a complete revelation on this subject", consequently, no law is violated. (???)
I believe that I can prove beyond a shadow of a doubt that Paul wrote the book of Romans before he was taken prisoner at the temple in Jerusalem and before he took the advice of James and the elders at Jerusalem. Space will not permit me to go into Romans and Galatians as I would like to in order to show that the Holy Spirit had revealed this matter previous to this event recorded in Acts 21 If Paul wrote the book of Romans after he was taken prisoner, why did he use such terms as, "For which cause also I have been much hindered from coming to you. But now having no more place in these parts, and having a great desire these many years to come unto you: When soever I take my journey into Spain I will come unto you: for I trust to see you in my journey: and to be brought on my way thitherward by you, if I first be somewhat filled with your company. "But now I go to Jerusalem to minister unto the saints. For it hath pleased them of Macedonia and Achaia to make a certain contribution for the poor saints which are at Jerusalem. It hath pleased them verily: and their debtors they are. For if the Gentiles have been made partakers of their spiritual things their duty is also to minister unto them in carnal things. WHEN therefore I have performed this and sealed to them this fruit, I WILL COME BY YOU INTO SPAIN." (Rom. 15:22-28.)
Now let us see what Paul wrote by inspiration about this matter: "What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid." (Rom. 6:15.) "Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law." (Rom. 7:4a.) "But now we are delivered from the law." (Rom. 7:6a.) "For Christ is the end of the law" (Rom. 10:4a.) "For I thought the law am dead to the law, that I might live unto God." (Gal. 2:19.) "Ye observe days, months, times and years. I am afraid of you, lest I have bestowed upon you labor in vain." (Gal. 4:10,11.) Christ is become of no effect unto you whosoever of you are justified by the law: ye are fallen from grace." (Gal. 5:4.)
After writing the above was Paul consistent in taking James' and the elders' advice to show these Jewish Christians that he "walkest orderly and keepest the law"? What "purification" did they hope to gain outside of Christ?
I do not wish to speak in a derogatory manner of such a man of God, one who gave so much for the cause of Christ as did the great apostle Paul; but is it not possible that even Paul, James and others might have faltered for a moment as did Peter, who was rebuked for a similar inconsistency?
It has been estimated that it was about 60 A.D. when Paul took James' and the elders' (at Jerusalem) advice to show the people that the law of Moses was kept by him.
Question: If Jewish Christians could keep the law in 60 A.D., why can they not do so in 1959 A.D.?